No, LSJ is simply trying to say that John Philoponus (as cited in Eustathius) said that γελοῖος meant καταγέλαστος, while γελοιός meant γελωτοποιός — in other words, the opposite of what e.g. Ammonius said. LSJ's reference, however, may be a typo. Cf. TLG:
Eustathius Philol., Scr. Eccl., Commentarii ad Homeri Iliadem Volume 3, page 397, line 20:
Ἔχει δὲ παρασημειώσεις τοιαύτας καὶ ὁ Φιλόπονος, ἐν αἷς καὶ ὅτι γελοῖος μὲν ὁ καταγέλαστος προπερισπωμένως, γελοιός δὲ ὀξυτόνως ὁ γελωτοποιός ...